This forum is so much fun. I love getting called out specifically when I have not even been involved in the subject. Let me try to be actually helpful to the OP with some legal research, as was asked.
I had to go back a ways, but Breckinridge v. Crocker in 1889 comes close to a discussion of what we want. There was a dispute back in the day over buying half the town of Merced via Telegram. No real contract was formed except for over telegram, and it was unclear what people were buying. "balance of Merced town property" was the legal description and the contract was voided when the seller backed out. The buyer was trying to sue to get remedies. The case was dismissed without trial, and then it was appealed.
There were apparently two different maps. One unrecorded map with a bigger property called "Town of Merced" and one recorded map called "Official Map, Town of Merced, Merced County, Cal." with a smaller property. Wasn't clear which one was being bought and thats what decided the case. But a telegram is "writing"; there was some discussion about it in the opinion and how it met the statute of frauds. Whether or not that still holds with the current statute of frauds case litigation now is subject to opinion; I have no idea what is truly considered "writing" right now in current case law, and you would have to litigate it under current precedent. But this is the closest thing I found on this particular subject. But if no one on this forum knows the precedent that would modify this interpretation, I would assume its pretty unlikely that it exists. Or at least the subject has not come in front of the courts in a while.
It looks to us as if there might have been, and probably was, a misunderstanding as to what was the subject-matter of the proposed purchase and sale. Certainly, the-contract was left uncertain in this particular, and being so, must be regarded as only inchoate.
We therefore advise that the judgment be affirmed.
It should be noted though, that there was a dissent and one of the judges wanted to send it to trial to determine the specifics reguarding the terms of the sale.
Whether there was any'well-known and clearly defined tract of land answering to those terms of description was a question depending—as in all such cases it must more or less depend—on evidence aliunde.
.. The evidence introduced on the. part of the plaintiff-*539in this case certainly tended to show that there was a well-defined tract of land known as the town of Merced. It is true that there was some testimony tending to show that the name was applied to two different surveys, a smaller one, and a larger one including the smaller. But this was not ground for a nonsuit, which is proper only where there is a total failure of proof on some material issue.
Getting a case source was a pain to find because its so old, but I found one here.
https://www.courtlistener.com/opinion/5 ... v-crocker/
Basically, my understanding/interpretation, especially after reading Breckinridge v. Crocker, is that much like any other thing under contract law, you are welcome to make the terms of the contract whatever you want. The sale of property is just the terms of the contract. Those terms just have to be written somehow into the contract to meet the statute of frauds. (even if it is just a telegram) A plat is "writing" and the court made it pretty clear that the statute of frauds was met for the "written" component, but the telegram component or the distance component from each other to know what the clear terms were was the problem. Or it was pretty clear the two parties were not in a room looking at the same survey to have made any kind of clear contract to know the terms. That's what decided the case. Otherwise, the dissent made it clear that everything becomes a typical contract case where the parties dispute everything and fight it out in court if there is a possibility to review the terms. My guess is that if one of the maps was quoted in the telegram, the appeal would have lost, and it would have gone to trial to get into more specifics. Either way, its still a CA Supreme Court precedent. It was quoted as the underlying precedent in a 2008 CA Supreme Court case as well, so its likely still valid. I just don't know how much it has been modified over the years. Or how many offshoots there could be.
The quote/rule this case made is below, and it was used as precedent in other 1950s cases that led me to find this case. That last requirement at the end is the one you care about.
In order to take a contract for the sale of land out of the statute of frauds, it is not necessary that there be a formal contract, drawn up with technical exactness. A memorandum of the agreement is sufficient, and it may *535be found in one or more papers, some or all of which may be telegrams. But the memorandum must contain-all the material elements of the contract; that is, it must show who is the seller and who is the buyer, what the price is and when it is to be paid, and must so describe the land that it can be identified
I'm not going to touch on the recorder stuff. Yes, you probably have an issue there and things you need to follow to get things done in practice. But is it a real legal issue, or is it a "rules" issue that the recorder has just made up a quasi-regulation outside of the statute based on their own potentially incorrect interpretation of the law that would be overturned by the courts if you challenged it? But again, that is the value proposition of a suveyor. We know the ins and outs to make your transaction run smoothly without going to the courts to prove your point. Knowing the rules of the recorder in your jurisdiction is a factor in that. But that doesn't mean it applies to every jurisdiction.
All the other bullshit is Dave's opinion. Or its something a few people do, and there's no hard and fast rule that it would hold for your specific issues. Hear it or don't. Some of it I agree with, some I don't. Not exactly sure what his obsession with books is. There are better media for information transfer now, and books are just some guy or gal's opinion on a subject. Typically, making me read hours of bullshit to make 3 or 4 main points. That's why i get annoyed when people constantly tell me I need to "learn" something. Get to the point.
I do think this is something that is pretty much open-ended and either way is correct. Especially as technology gets better. Leases etc. Low risk. Cheap, where it is unlikely to be disputed. Go for it. I have done it. Again the law is really all about money. If there's not a lot of money at stake, no big deal.
I like LS9200's answer in that regard. Its pretty much the right answer without getting into the legal research that I did here. Also, his quote of Civil Code 1092 is a new code. Its from 1999. So you could take it to court and make a new precedent with it. However, you have to pay for that, and until someone does pay for it and takes it all the way to the CA Supreme Court to overturn this old precedent, I'm fairly certain the old precedent I quoted here still holds in the lower courts regarding the absence of real requirements. Civil Code 1091 was in place with this Breckinridge v. Crocker case and was effective in 1872, so it wouldn't conflict with a Breckinridge v. Crocker interpretation. The Statute of Frauds statute changes constantly over time and is not at all the same as it was in 1889, but the general form has been in place for a while and is pretty established, so you wouldn't likely be able to challenge that code for the Breckinridge v. Crocker interpretation.
I am pretty sure the legal answer to the OP question is essentially "no," but its a bad idea not to include a legal description where it matters because that is how it has always been done, and when you try to be the rebel, your intentions about what you are conveying are often misinterpreted. The goal for a deed, legal description or plat is clarity in the conveyance, at least in my opinion. That means following historical practices as much as possible and integrating them in with new technology. Plus, that is so reinforced that there is now a statute in Civil Code 1092 that would support you forcing a legal description if you really wanted to force it. Or, in other words, you could claim you are following the intentions of the legislature to overturn the previous ambiguity in this discussion by the courts of what should and should not be in a conveyance for the "must so describe the land that it can be identified" Breckinridge v. Crocke requires by forcing a legal description with every plat that you review, quoting 1092. But you would not yet be supported in case law, only statute law, for your own interpretation of statute.
I will say that I have had issues where the plat and the legal conflict for the same description. Personally, I would trust the plat nowadays with CAD if I had to choose one or the other. Because if it is really overseen by a PLS the legal and plat will match and there won't be problems, but if people are being cheap and the PLS is only saying they reviewed it and its not really being reviewed by a PLS (which happens a lot), the unlicensed will get the CAD right and won't know how to make the legal correct. So if I had to choose one or the other, I would choose the plat. That is the direction things are going. Every issue is different, though.
Also, I do like extraneous information. I understand the issues with it and the potential for conflicts. But I would prefer more information about someone's intentions to convey in 50 years than less information. Again, that's opinion though. But, I have had more issues where its harder to understand what was going on due to a lack of information in a conveyance rather than too much information that I cannot decipher to understand the intentions of the conveyance.